The Ruling on One Who Was Absent From His Wife For Four Years, Then She Bore Him a Son

Question :

A man was absent from his wife for four years, then she bore him a son after the aforementioned period; is the child attributed to him, bearing in mind that his wife is free, not a slave?

Answer:

If he had intercourse with her, then the child is attributed to the husband, according to the most authoritative of opinions held by the scholars, based upon the saying of the Prophet:
"The child belongs to the bed (on which he was born i.e., to the man who owns it).

And the husband may reject it, if he knows that it is not from him, by which he makes an allegation of adultery against his wife.

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